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Yes, I understand what you mean. You are confusing your particular experiences with the common speech of everyone, which is a logical fallacy.

You can read about the cultural and traditional idiom I wrote at the wikipedia page for "Evidence of Absence" where the first paragraph mentions, "Per the traditional aphorism, 'Absence of evidence is not evidence of absence,' positive evidence of this kind is distinct from a lack of evidence or ignorance[1] of that which should have been found already, had it existed."

There is further information in the wikipedia page for "Argument from ignorance" that shows why your use of evidence is also a logical fallacy. You can infer from indirect evidence, but that doesn't prove a fact.

While indirect evidence may lead one to to believe a fact has been proven, that is not what happens. You can read some of the legal ramifications of using indirect, inferential, or circumstantial evidence to convict beyond a reasonable doubt at https://www.legalzoom.com/articles/why-cant-some-juries-conv....



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